Reanimating the Dead

It’s trauma season once again. As room 9 after room 9 roll in the door the rising 2nd and 3rd years will soon be dealing with traumatic arrest patients (if they haven’t already). While the ED resident works to control the airway, the trauma team is placing bilateral chest tubes and a cordis. All of this while the nurses and techs continuously perform compressions and give 1mg of epi every 3-5 minutes, while inadvertently interrupting everything else going on. At the end of the day are all those compressions and all the epi going to change outcomes? We know in medical cardiac arrest it will but is traumatic cardiac arrest different?

Reanimating Patients After Traumatic Cardiac Arrest A Practical Approach Informed by Best Evidence discusses 5 key principles to guide management. The emphasize this is only for isolated traumatic cardiac arrests and that if there is any indication that a medical cardiac arrest occurred prior to a trauma following guidelines such as ACLS should be given priority.

 

The 5 Key Principles:

  1. Start or Stop
  2. Deprioritrize Chest Compressions
  3. Fix Ventilation
  4. Stop the Bleeding
  5. Fix the Physiology

 

 

Start or Stop:

When do you start or stop a traumatic resuscitation? What Factors do you consider? Well there is some food for thought:

Favorable Prognostics Factors:

  1. Penetrating injury, particularly to the Thorax
  2. Vitals Signs at any time
  3. Signs of Life at any time
  4. Short Duration (<10min)
  5. Cardiac Contractility on POC USN

Without 1 of these signs, survival is <1%. Important to keep in mind when EMS is giving a report and you are try to determine how long to attempt a resuscitation.

Spectrum of Output States:

They note for their practice the category of “dead” does NOT receive any further resuscitation. The note this is in part to save the vital limited resource of blood prodcuts. I also found it interesting that they separate PEA from pseudo-PEA from severe hypovolemia. Thats why having the cardiac probe in hand on arrival can save be useful in determining how far you are going to push the resuscitation.

 

 

Deprioritize Chest Compressions

Chest compressions may work for medical arrest but the pathology behind traumatic arrest is so vastly different all they do is get in the way of more vital procedures: intubation, chest tubes, central access, cardiac USN. Until all this has been established it would probably be better just to hold compression. Be warned however this will likely be an uncomfortable experience for the nurses/techs.

 

Fix Ventilation:

Referring back to Table 3 we can clearly see that establishing an airway and decompressing both sides of the chest should be top priority in a traumatic arrest.

Remember that traumatic arrests are a low flow state and while most patients while not require a induction agent or paralytic if you do use a paralytic use TWICE the dose.

 

Stop the Bleeding:

Simple and straight forward if it’s bleeding make it stop. Direct Pressure, tourniquets, topical hemostatic agents (which as far as I’m aware we don’t have) and pelvic binders are all easily performed in room 9. Thoracotomy is also something to consider discussing with Trauma early on in these resuscitations. Both the Eastern Association for  the Surgery of Trauma and the Western Trauma Association recommend thoracotomy and though their conditions vary penetrating trauma to the torso and arrest for less than 15 minutes seems to be a good rule of thumb.

 

Fix the Physiology: 

Pretty straightforward recommendations that we do everyday:

  1. Keep the Patient warm to prevent exacerbating coagulopathies
  2. Establish AccessL Large bore (14-18 gauge) IV access above the diaphragm, IO access of the proximal humerus, 8 or 9-Fr CVC preferably subclavian while avoiding multiple lumen CVCs
  3. Minimize fluids and transfuse blood products 1:1:1 and allow for permissive hypotension

They go into some post-resuscitation recommendations as well when it comes to “fix the physiology” but those are less important to use.  I would recommend that everyone should briefly review this article as it has a lot more information and reasoning behind their recommendations.

 

 

Limping toddler

Nothing crazy here, just some EM bread and butter. I’ve had a couple of these at Children’s, and each time (with two different attendings), I’ve been told that the adult EM residents seem to overlook this, or not have any idea that it’s a thing, which is kind of embarrassing.

The patient is a 22-month-old male who presents with difficulty walking. Mom states that the child was walking fine until this morning. Since then, he has not been wanting to put weight on his right leg. Mom does not recall any injury. The child is otherwise well, no signs/symptoms of illness, and he has no medical problems.

On exam, the child will not put weight on his right leg when forced to stand. The extremity is well perfused, and there are no signs of trauma. He has no point tenderness, so it is not clear where he is hurting, but does seem to have pain when the foot is grasped and rotated internally and externally.

Discussion: In the toddler with a possible lower extremity injury, it may be difficult to localize where the child is having pain. If there is a question, the entire extremity should be imaged (though you should try to localize the problem area if possible). In this case, we suspected a toddler’s fracture, so a 3 view tib/fib was obtained. This is an important learning point: many times, the fracture line will only be visible on the oblique view, so it is necessary to get 3 views. In this patient, the xray was negative (as were other films of the leg). We diagnosed the child with a toddler’s fracture, placed him in a short leg splint with stirrups, and discharged him with orthopedics follow up.

A toddler’s fracture is a spiral fracture of the distal tibia which usually occurs by the same mechanism as an adult spraining an ankle. Sometimes it is a clinical diagnosis, not visible on X-ray. There is debate in the literature about immobilization in this case; some say it is necessary, some say it’s not. The culture at Norton Children’s seems to be immobilization. Regardless, the child should follow up in 1 week for definitive diagnosis, either with repeat plain films, or possibly MRI or bone scan. If there is a visible fracture on plain films in the ER, the child should be placed in a short leg splint with knee immobilizer and follow up with orthopedics in 72 hours.

Snakes and ladders

Last month I had an interesting Room9 for visual purposes. The story per EMS was jumbled, as it can be from time to time. All we knew was that the patient was a middle aged man who either fell off a roof or jumped off a ladder into a foot and half of water. …agreed. Details were otherwise unavailable. We manage repercussions of injuries, not the causes.

The patent came in intubated, wet, hemodynamically stable. The patient had ketamine en route but was still active with GCS 6T. He required more than your typical sedation to be amenable for the CT scanner. The physical exam showed no motor activity in lower extremities, including to painful stimuli. We noted no step-offs or abrasions. The patient had no signs of trauma other than the motor weakness.He moved his upper extremities and needed restraints due to lack of response to sedation. CT images are below. Most of these images mirror almost exact images from Dr. Ferguson’s lecture on spine fractures, thus I thought it would be good to go over.

As you can see the patient had significant fractures of his cervical spine. Talking with Neurosurgery, the burst fracture is more common in lower thoracic and upper lumbar spine and only is seen in cervical spines to this degree under severe axial load injuries, such as going head first from a significant height (especially when the posterior column has a vertical fracture as seen above).

I’ve always wondered the significance of doing spinal check during the physical exam prior to CT, when they are already getting “manned”. I often feel that if there is real pathology (ie. unstable fractures), won’t palpating (and deep palpation on obese patients) worsen the fracture and theoretically cause neurological issues. I haven’t found much to substantiate that, but it seems to make intuitive sense; I am open to any other opinions / suggestions.

Does anyone want to comment on the type of fractures noted, stable vs unstable (refer to Ferguson’s lecture)?

Are teardrop fractures stable?

Is there any significant retropulsion?

Could you hypothesize flexion vs extension injury?


Answer: Unstable teardrop fracture as well as a burst fracture, and borderline chance fracture (not typical for this cervical spine location).

 

For further spine related information please look at the links below or Dr. Ferguson’s spine lecture. Ferguson’s is a great source covering the importance of stable and unstable fractures, and a great lecture for interns to go over, especially early on in the year.

Here is a good podcast from Scott W. on less traumatic c-spine injuries:

EMCrit 63 – A Pain in the Neck – C-Spine Imaging and Clearance

And some other good sources:

http://www.aafp.org/afp/1999/0115/p331.html

http://www.paems.org/pdfs/online-ce/Evaluation-and-management-of-acute-cervical-spine-trauma.pdf

Always keep your differential broad

I had a case in our department that I won’t forget for a while, and it reminded me to keep my differential broad even if the suspected diagnosis seems blatantly obvious.

 

An early 40’s female presented to our ER about 5 days after an MVC in which she was the restrained driver, where the car rolled onto its side going about 40s-50s MPH. + LOC, + airbags. Paramedics arrived on scene after a while when she was up and walking, and she refused to be taken to the ER. Over the following 5 days, she had near constant neck pain as well as a worsening headache and worsening abdominal and “rib” pain on the lower left side.

She presented to our ER in a hallway bed, where her initial HR was in the mid 80s, but BP was 80s/40s on multiple checks. O2 sat and temperature were normal. Mental status was normal, and there were no physical signs of trauma on her body. She had tenderness to the L lower and lateral ribs, as well as LUQ/LMQ abdominal tenderness, and lower midline C-spine tenderness. I quickly had her placed in a cervical collar, and brought the ultrasound to bedside a performed a FAST, which was negative (to my surprise).

I ordered fluid boluses, trauma labs, type and crossmatch, and planned to send her for a man scan, but her kidney function showed an AKI and therefore had to wait for one fluid bolus before going to the scanner. BP slowly started to trend upwards, not reaching over mid 90s systolic before she went to the scanner. Of note, she did have a slightly elevated white count in the mid-to-upper teens.

My differential? Trauma, trauma, trauma. She has to be bleeding somewhere, she may have a fractured C-spine, intracranial injury, intraabdominal injury, likely splenic laceration. My FAST just must not have picked it up. Given the history and clinical circumstance, I don’t think I was completely wrong for not having anything else on my differential for this hypotensive patient with concerning physical exam findings 5 days out from a serious car accident.

Once her man scan was done, I looked though the scans and noticed her right kidney was heterogenous with contrast enhancement with stranding around it. No fluid in her pelvis, and the rest of the man scan was entirely negative. Radiology soon called and said she had the “worst case of pyelonephritis I think I’ve ever seen”. A urine sample was finally collected after the scan resulted, which was, no longer to my surprise, infected. Upon talking to the patient, she denied any dysuria or frequency, but said her urine was “green” this morning. She never had any suprapubic pain.

That is the story of how I admitted a patient to medicine for pyelonephritis after getting a man scan and diagnosing it on CT. I don’t think I’ll be changing the top item on my differential, but I think I will keep other causes of hypotension and shock on my differential until they are ruled out in cases of delayed trauma presentation, such as this one.

ED Thoracotomy

Link

Resuscitative Thoracotomy

OVERVIEW

  • resuscitative thoracotomy is a thoracotomy performed prehospital, in the emergency department or elsewhere that is an integral part of the initial resuscitation of a patient
  • an alternate term is emergency thoractomy
  • survival 4-33%
  • determinants of survival include mechanism of injury, the location of injury and the presence or absence of vital signs
  • best outcomes in:

-> penetrating chest
-> those exsaunginating from chest tube
-> isolated chest trauma
-> cardiac injuries
-> abdominal trauma that benefits from aortic clamping
-> time since loss of vitals

REQUIREMENTS

  • ETT
  • shock or arrest with a suspected correctable intrathoracic lesion
  • specific diagnosis (cardiac tamponade, penetrating cardiac lesion or aortic injury)
  • evidence of ongoing thoracic haemorrhage

INDICATIONS

Accepted

  • penetrating injury + arrest + previous signs of life
  • blunt injury + arrest + previous signs of life

Relative

  • penetrating injury + no signs of life and CPR < 15min – blunt injury + signs of life in field or during transport -> arrest 15 min
  • blunt injury + no signs of life
  • multiple blunt trauma
  • severe head injury

RESUSCITATION IN TRAUMATIC ARREST

  • 1. Intubate (reverses hypoxia)
  • 2. Insert bilateral chest drains (or thoracostomies)
  • 3. Resuscitative Thoracotomy
  • 4. Limit fluid as this worsens outcome in penetrating thoracic trauma unless haemorrhage controlled
  • 5. Limit inotropes and pressors until circulation restored (will need once defect repaired)

TECHNIQUE

Goals

  • relieve cardiac tamponade
  • perform open cardiac massage
  • occlude aorta to increase blood flow to heart and brain
  • control life threatening thoracic bleeding
  • control bronchovenous air embolism

1. Full aseptic technique*** –> This was recently an issue where the Trauma attending cited both his team and ours in Rm9 for lack of full prep –> masks, surgical gloves, gowns, etc. should be worn when performing this procedure.
2. Scalpel through skin and intercostal muscles to mid axillary line.
3. Insert heavy duty scissors into thoracostomy incisions.
4. Cut through sternum.
5. Lift up (clam shell)

-> relieve tamponade (longitudinal incision through pericardium)
-> repair cardiac wounds (non-absorbable sutures, 3.0)
-> stop massive lung or hilar bleeding with finger (partial or intermittent occlusion may be performed to avoid right heart failure)
-> identify aortic injuries (repair with 3.0 non-absorbable sutures or use finger)
-> consider aortic cross clamping at level of diaphragm (limits spinal cord ischemia)

Emergency Escharotomy

Case: 57 yo M who presents via EMS found with circumferential burns on bilateral lower extremities, left upper extremity, lower pelvis, and left side of chest after being trapped in a burning tent. Unknown time of incident.

VS: HR: 128, RR: 24, BP: 112/64, SpO2 96% on 4L O2

Alert, oriented x 2. SEVERELY DISTRESSED. Singed nares bilaterally. Bilateral wheezes, tachypneic. Tachycardic, RR. Abd S/NT/ND. Once again, 3rd degree burns circumferential burns from lower pelvis, extending to groin, and down to bilateral lower extremities. The 3rd degree burn covered the left side of his chest and his RUE. No pulses were palpated in his LUE or BLE. Though burned, BLE and RUE appeared blanched with poor cap refill and cool to touch. 72% estimated burn coverage total. Pt stated he was unable to feel or move bilateral lower extremities.

During the process of IV, O2, monitor, and moving the pt over. I called for pain medication, intubation meds, and got the equipment ready for intubation.

Trauma, Plastics, Urology – paged. Don’t wait to get consults on board in a case where you are preparing to do this procedure.

On physical exam, remember Wallace rule of nines (see total body surface area): 9% for each arm, 18% for each leg, 18% for the front of the torso, 18% for the back of the torso, and 9% for the head and 1% for the perineum. At the same time, think Lactated Ringers at 4 mL x kg x percentage burn = total fluids needed for replacement in initial 24hrs. First half of amount in first 8 hours with the second half over 16hrs{{Parkland}}.

But, first, intubate to secure the airway, provide pain control, and facilitate further exam. Needless to say, burns are extremely painful.. . so are escharotomies.

Trauma wedge took the RLE, and I had the LLE. In the race to get pulses back, I succeeded and was rewarded with getting to do the LUE as well.

How did I perform the procedure you ask? Well, it was with the Trauma fellow standing at the foot of the bed giving instructions and guidance . .. I had never seen anything like this except for textbook cases of a circumferential burn to the chest/trunk. This procedure is not on our sign off list, required list, or on anything that I had seen in cadaver lab.

While these procedures are as rare as a Trauma fellow eager to teach at 2 am, you may be faced with the same in a rural ED or with a wedge stuck in the OR, etc.

Advice: Be nice to your colleagues. And, more importantly, prepare.

Here are some very informative links that would’ve been great to have seen or reviewed prior.

Step 1: Read the Overview

Video 1: Robot voice explanation: Best display of lines for incision, but more from a surgical perspective

Video 2: Australian Escharotomy How-to

FYI:

Suprapubic catheter was also placed in the ED prior to the pt going to the OR. Another rare procedure, not required, but useful to know.

5 day old with “seizures”

Recently I had an interesting case at Kosair of a 5 day old male who presented with jerking movements of his arms and legs. He always had “twitches,” which the parents had been assured were normal for a newborn, but the episodes were getting worse. Since the day before, he had had several episodes where both arms would shake and seize up and his legs would curl up under him, lasting about a minute. He is sleepy afterwards, but mom thinks he’s always pretty drowsy. Overall it was unclear if what mom was describing was a seizure. Even her helpful phone videos were not 100% clear, but we proceeded as though they were real seizures. In a 5 day old.

Mom had 3 UTIs during pregnancy, and her labor was likely precipitated by an episode of pyelo. She and baby were briefly tachy during labor but pain meds helped, and the SVD was otherwise uneventful. No STIs, GBS negative.

Baby was afebrile, normal VS. Appeared drowsy until the usual screeching during the cath urine, so overall, well-appearing baby. He did twitch sometimes, but he never had one of the spells while he was in the ER.

Differential diagnosis for neonatal seizures? Bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, SAH, SDH, hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, inborn errors of metabolism, etc.

Our patient wasn’t actively seizing and labs were WNL.

Subdural hematoma (from birth) and meningitis were high on our differential. We went ahead and gave antibiotics but got a CT head before proceeding with the LP, and I’m glad we did.  It turned out that he did have a subdural hematoma, likely parturitional. We elected to forego the LP, since he was afebrile and we already had a reasonable explanation for his symptoms. Neurosurgery wanted a repeat CT in 6 hours (surprise!), and neuro wanted an EEG (surprise!). He never had any of the episodes in the ER, so neuro didn’t start any antiepileptic medications.  He was admitted to the PICU.

He never had any seizure activity on EEG, so neuro diagnosed him with neonatal myoclonus. Hypocoagulability workup by hematology was negative. Neurosurgery will follow up in 3 weeks as an outpatient. He was discharged after 4 days.

The other interesting discussion on this patient involved whether or not to involve CPS, since this type of injury could be seen with a shaken baby syndrome. The parents were very appropriate and there was no sign of any other trauma and negative skeletal survey, so CPS was not contacted. The overall assumption was that the SDH was secondary to birth trauma rather than any non-accidental trauma.

Activating a Level I from EXI

Presentation: late-20s male, denied any medical history, presented after he got hit multiple times in the head with a two-by-four when he drunkenly stumbled into a stranger’s yard while walking home.  He had some abrasions to the head and face, and was obviously intoxicated, but had normal vitals and a nonfocal neurologic exam.  He had no visible trauma to the extremities or torso on initial evaluation and had reportedly been ambulatory at the scene.  He was cooperative and really wasn’t causing too much trouble for an EXI patient on whatever night it was.  So I went with the “liter of fluids, basic labs, scan his head and c-spine, and watch him while he sobers up” approach.  It’s one I’ve used many times before and since, and one that in all honesty I still stand by for this patient, at least initially.

Fast forward a handful of hours, his scans are negative, and he’s sobered up nicely.  He’s still cooperative, but having a little bit of left side pain.  He wasn’t very hungry but had taken a few sips and tolerated them okay.  So our fabulous nurse and tech tell me he’s “walky-talky” and probably going to be ready to go soon.  I start to get his discharge ready, when they catch my eye and call me over.

What I see when I get over there is not at all what I expect based on my last spin through EXI on my way out of Room 9…

Now, this guy looks sick.  Legitimately sick.  Not just unsteady or a little too drunk to walk, he is GHOSTLY pale and unable to stand.  He’s got a pained grimace on his face and is about to pass out.  We got him back into his chair and someone went off to grab an extra bag of fluids and the ultrasound for me, since his heart rate had spiked up to 125.  After he was flat in his chair, I threw the ultrasound probe on his abdomen: RUQ was equivocal, but his LUQ had a nice huge stripe of free fluid.  He also had some new ecchymosis in his left lateral abdomen/LUQ.  Unfortunately I was in a little bit of panic mode and didn’t save his ultrasound images, but it was crystal clear to me what had happened: something had been bleeding for a while and was now causing a big problem.  So we rolled his chair into Room 9, plopped him onto a bed, and hit the Level I button when his manual systolic pressure came out at 85.  We pumped fluids in him and got blood to the bedside and into his veins right about the same time the wedge and chief showed up.  He stabilized enough for the scanner after initial resuscitation, and Trauma stood by in radiology to watch the images come up.

His spleen was pretty much ripped in two.  He didn’t appear to have any active extravasation (surprisingly, as far as I recall), and his pressure was improving though his heart rate wouldn’t go below 100 for more than a few seconds at a time.  I talked to him, I talked to his mother, and I talked to the Trauma folks.  We had enough time to get repeat blood work, discuss the impending surgery, and get him packaged up as stable as he was going to be before they whisked him away to Room 4 (or maybe 6, whichever).

He recovered uneventfully from his splenectomy, and was discharged from the hospital a few days later.  He had the best possible outcome given the particulars of his eventful time in the ER.  But I kept asking myself a handful of questions over the following days that I still think about from time to time.  What if we had walked him earlier, well before his hemorrhage was on the border of Class II and Class III?  Could he have gone home and died of hemorrhagic shock from a missed spleen injury?  What if I had scanned him earlier and he had only had a tiny contained rupture with no extravasation?  Would he have ended up in OR 4 anyway but gone there from the floor or PCU instead of from the ED?  How should I have proceeded differently?

After kicking myself for a couple of days, I talked with the attending who had been on with me at the time all of the kerfuffle went down, and felt much better about my decision-making process.  I distinctly remember him having no torso trauma or pain on my first assessment.  Man scanning this young, otherwise healthy patient was not indicated.  It was not contraindicated, but would have seemed superfluous and a misuse of resources based on his initial presentation.  As a side note, which was honestly extremely relieving to me, Trauma wasn’t all that critical of my decision-making process and was just glad we caught it before it got any worse.

In doing a little bit of background research, it appears that delayed spleen rupture is a not-entirely-unheard-of entity, but is debated in some surgical literature as a term coined as an alternative way to describe a missed initial diagnosis.  Regardless of what it’s called, it does happen.  Though, when it does, it’s usually after at least a couple of days (sometimes even a week), not just a few hours.  The literature focuses more on whether it’s a legitimate problem than how to manage, as the management is no different from a normal spleen rupture.  Operative intervention is the usual course, though some small lacerations/subcapsular hematomas are electively managed with observation first, especially in high-operative-risk patients.

My experience gave me 3 lessons to take away.

First: Young, healthy, adult patients can trick you just like children, with vitals not markedly abnormal until a big problem is present.  So you need to reassess them.  I know I’m as guilty as the next person of not always reassessing as thoroughly as I’d like, especially on a busy shift, but I’m also much more aware of who will need me to do a little more work before I can bless their departure.

Second: Drunk (or otherwise intoxicated patients) can trick you and hide serious problems.  Be aware of this going forward, because it doesn’t mean you need to man scan everyone, it just means you need to keep your mind open to injuries that aren’t initially apparent.

Third: Adjusting the plan and course is entirely okay, and in some ways it’s what EM is built for.  It’s why we get gaits on traumas with leg pain.  It’s why we walk our drunks and PO challenge our vomiting patients.  And it’s something we have to keep in mind because we’ve all seen patients who went from apparently fine to nearly-dead in what seemed like a single instant.

Head injury patients with delayed presentation to ED

Another pearl from EM Lit of Note. Bottom line: Retro review of CT head obtained for trauma divided into <24 hours and >24 hours time of presentation. The delayed presenters had a HIGHER percentage of positive CT and had a similar amount of patients requiring NES intervention.

We discussed this the other day. First Care obtained a head CT on a patient several days after a minor head injury. We presumed it was not indicated. Then I read this paper.

Unfortunately I cannot find in the paper a description of time to presentation. It is grouped into less than 24 hours and greater than. I wonder if the likelihood of positive CT scan decreases as time from injury to presentation increases.

In any event, this poses difficult questions. Should we obtain more CTs on the delayed presenters? They are as likely to have positive findings. In addition, the NICE guideline is 70% sensitive, versus its comforting 98% in the less than 24 hour group.

Would be a good article to discuss for journal club. Would love to see some comments.

April Journal Club

Hey, all,

There is multimedia for this month’s journal club, so I wanted to post it all in one place. The theme will be impossible decisions in the department (eg ED thoracotomy without surgery backup, but we’ve talked about that issue ad nauseum). In my mind, it’s best to think about how you’ll approach impossible decisions now, before they show up overnight on single coverage in the middle of nowhere. Other ideas for discussion are welcome.

Closing the emergency department: EP Monthly, Diversion 1, Diversion 2

Crashing VP shunt patient: Tapping a shunt article, Tapping a shunt video

Epidural hematoma: Burr hole for epidural hematoma articleBurr hole presentation, Video of a burr hole

 

NEXUS in the Elderly

Hopefully everyone is using the NEXUS criteria or the Canadian C Spine rule in evaluation of patients who have undergone neck trauma. Those familiar with both know one major difference, age criteria. NEXUS does not use age, Canadian C spine does. Using both rules together, like PERC with Well’s, increases sensitivity at expense of specificity.

Well here is a study on falls in the elderly (i.e. low mechanism which is another difference between NEXUS and Canadian) and application of NEXUS. Turns out, probably shouldn’t be using NEXUS in patients over 65. Liberally scan these folks, radiation is less of a concern, and the cost is justified due to morbidity of missed injuries. And of course do not bother with plain films (in adults).

Dr. Smock’s Forensic GSW lecture 7/22/15

Here are some highlights of Dr. Smock’s Forensic lecture. This will help remind me what to document in my next GSW pt. Here is a pfd version. Forensic GSW Documentation

 

Forensic GSW Documentation: 

Bullet causes… Abrasion collar
Unburned gunpowder causes… Tattooing aka. stippling (this lasts a few days, seen as punctate abrasions, DO NOT CALL THIS “GUN POWDER”)
Burned gunpowder causes… Soot
Flame causes… Seared skin
Injected gas causes… Triangular tears
Muzzle causes… Muzzle contusion

Distance from Weapon:

Indeterminate abrasion collar present
Intermediate < 40 in Tattooing & abrasion collar present
Close < 6 in Soot & abrasion collar present
Contact Seared skin, triangular shaped tears, & soot present

Reasons not to get into prison fights…

Middle aged male transferred from an OSH, accepted by ENT for a mandible fracture.

The patient is incarcerated, and was involved in an “altercation” with other inmates. The incident occurred around 2PM; but he didn’t report any of his pain to the guards until 10PM.  On arrival at the OSH he had multiple contusions to his face/head, lacerations over his hands, and obvious dental trauma.  The patient was also complaining of chest pain – he stated that another inmate had slammed him in the chest with his knee. Despite his age, the patient has a history of previous MI in 2011, cathed at U of L with no stents placed. Takes a baby aspirin, no other meds and no other PMH.

At this point, the patient is about 10 hours out from the incident. Work-up at the OSH with the following: neg CT head and CXR. CT face with a mandible fracture. Labs notable for WBC 17.8, Hgb 14.3, platelet 373, normal coags, normal electrolytes, BUN/Cr 14.0/1.1. Total CK 213 (55-170 normal), troponin <0.012, CKMB  1.66 (0 – 3.38 normal), myoglobin 271.8 (0-121 normal).  Tox screen negative. EKG is as follows:

OSH EKG

His hand lacerations were repaired and he was started on Augmentin for a human bite. ENT accepted, and the patient was transferred to U of L, arriving about 6 AM. Dental was consulted on arrival and splinted his teeth. By 9 AM ENT had evaluated the patient and admitted him to the floor, planning for surgical intervention.

The patient was an ED floor hold, and around 2PM began complaining of worsening chest pain. ENT was paged and ordered an EKG and a set of cardiac enzymes, coming down to re-eval the patient. His EKG now looked like this:

1410 EKG

Enzymes came back with CK total 5024, CKMB 303, and troponin 44.1. Cardiology was consulted and ordered a stat echo and started the patient on ACS protocol. The echo showed an EF of 30%, an akinetic mid/distal anferoseptum and an akinetic apex. Cards initially thought that this was consistent with stress cardiomyopathy in the setting of trauma, but couldn’t rule out cardiac ischemia due to direct cardiac trauma. They planned to treat medically and cath in the morning.

Throughout the evening, he developed worsening ST elevation in his lateral leads and his troponin continued to rise, up to 67.0 by midnight.

0308 EKG

The on call cath attending at Jewish was consulted and by about 3AM the decision was made to transfer the patient to Jewish for a cath first thing in the morning.

Final result: 100% LAD occlusion, secondary to direct cardiac trauma.

Definitely rare injury, but one to keep in the back of your mind, especially as it can occur in previously healthy, relatively young patients. Of note, these can have delayed presentations, up to several days. Typically occur after MVA, but there are several cases reports occurring after crush injuries, being hit in the chest by a soccer/rugby ball, and my personal favorite, one listed as “struck in the chest by an umbrella tip.”

Positioning is Everything

When using a chest x-ray to look for a pneumothorax, positioning of the patient is everything.  The first chest x-ray below is an upright chest x-ray from an OSH of a patient that fell 30 feet from deer stand and was found to have a right pneumothorax.  The OSH didn’t do any other imaging and didn’t even send the patient with a c-collar.

When the patient arrived we laid him down and placed a c-collar and assumed that his spines weren’t cleared yet.  When we shot the portable, supine chest x-ray in our ED we couldn’t see a pneumothorax and our radiologist actually read it as no pneumothorax.

Using the US, an EFAST was performed and showed a pneumothorax and the subsequent Chest CT verified it.  Therefore the next time you get an ED, supine chest xray on someone, remember that just because you don’t see a pneumothorax on a supine CXR, doesn’t mean they don’t have one.  The optimal xray is an upright chest xray (expiratory if possible)!

Upright OSH xrayUpright Chest x-ray from OSH

Supine UofL portable Xray

Portable, supine Chest X-ray in our ED

CT scan

CT showing the Right Pneumothorax

Ketofol losing sexiness

I rarely use ketofol at Jewish, but will let you guys use it at UL when you want. But this article gives a similar opinion to mine: Ketofol does not hold much benefit if any over Ketamine or Propofol.

For quick procedures where you want muscle relaxation (joint reductions or cardioversion), I use propofol. For painful procedures and trauma patients (traction pins, intubating marginal BP patients, chest tubes) I prefer ketamine.

Propofol with the K does NOT seem to decrease emergence reactions. Though Midazolam does so do give 1-2mg midazolam with your ketamine.

My main issue is anecdotally that the ketofol duration of sedation is noticeably shorter than ketamine. I believe this is due to a lower ketamine dose. And we all know that once the dissociative threshold of ketamine is reached, higher doses simply lengthen the duration of effect. You can’t get “more dissociated” just like you can’t be “very unique.”

I don’t even want to mention etomidate here, as I see only one indication for etomidate (as of 2015 where we are on the brink of taking the head injury stigma away from ketamine).

Article is worth a read.