Hypotension

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Late 70s year old female with chief complaint of dizziness and fatigue. Patient has a medical history of HTN and recent cataract surgery.  In triage patient was hypotensive with BP of 70\35 and Bradycardic with a heart rate ranging from 55-60, O2 sats 100% on room air and afebrile.

I found the patient to be lethargic. Otherwise her exam was unremarkable with no focal neurologic deficits, cardiac and pulmonary exam unremarkable, and no abdominal pain. Her husband was in the room and states that they were on their way to their grandson’s high school graduation and she began complaining of feeling dizzy and she started to become lethargic. She had not been sick recently and before this morning she was completely at her baseline. To note yesterday her blood pressure was 180/95 when she checked at home so she typically runs high. No new changes to her medications which consisted of metoprolol Succinate 100mg QD and a Baby Aspirin.

As I talked to the husband he went on to explain that she had recently had cataract surgery on her left eye and that this morning she had a follow up appointment with her ophthalmologist. While at the ophthalmologist appointment the doctor said that the pressure in her eye was high and she received some drops in her eye to bring the pressure down but the husband could not remember the name of the drops.

So I started by getting CBC, CMP, TSH, Urine, Chest xray, EKG, Troponin and a head CT to complete my little old lady AMS workup. Obviously the differential diagnosis for AMS in the elderly is vast so I was considering a lot of different possibilities.  While I waited for her results to come back I called her Ophthalmologist that she had seen that morning to see what drops she had received. Ends up she got Alphagan which is an alpha agonist, Trusopt which is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, and 3 drops of Timolol. I discussed with him the possibility of the Timolol on top of her morning metoprolol 100mg as potentially causing her hypotension and bradycardia. He stated he had never seen that happen in his 16 yrs of practice but it is theoretically possible. A quick Uptodate search confirmed that hypotension can occur in as many as 10% of patients using Timolol eye drops which to me was a surprisingly high number.

So I’ll go ahead and cut to the good stuff. All of her labs and imaging returned unremarkable and her EKG just showed sinus bradycardia with a rate of 57.  Ultimately she got 2L of Normal Saline and we watched her for about 5 hrs. Throughout her stay her blood pressure steadily increased and at the time of her discharge she was 135/86 with a heart rate of 74 and she was back to her baseline and much more awake.

I thought this was an interesting case as it seems relatively rare for topical eye drops to result in systemic side effects however in the right patient population it can result in severe side effects. A quick literature search brought up multiple case reports of patient’s having symptomatic bradycardia and even syncope resulting from Timolol use.

So definitely something to keep in mind if you have a elderly or frail patient with acute angle glaucoma who is already on beta blocker therapy. Maybe trying other drops first instead of Timolol or at least be sure to make the patient aware of the possibility of side effects including hypotension, bradycardia, fatigue, and even syncope so they know what to watch out for.

Treating BB/CCB overdose

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Systemic review article on treating BB/CCB overdose

CCB poisoning A systematic review

Key points:

1) High dose insulin 1u/kg bolus and then 0.2-0.3u/kg/h in conjunction w a vasopressor improves survival.

2) No mortality benefits with glucagon or atropine

3) In animal studies , lipids, levophed and dopamine improves survival

4)Consider ECMO for pts in cardiac arrest or refractory shock.

 

 

 

Sick PEs

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We had a very ill patient recently. She was found down upstairs visiting her family member. She was calmly altered, not agitated but was in mild distress. Consciousness fluctuated. Tachycardic and hypertensive initially, then had more labile BP and some hypotension.

We had to intubate her due to poor MS and clinical condition. She coded in CT, we placed a central line on the CT table between her noncontrast head CT and her CT chest. We pushed an amp of Epi and ran out of the room for the CT chest. We were worried about dissection and PE in equal amounts. We could not get good cardiac windows on bedside Echo in room 9 prior to the CT.

She continued to intermittently lose her pulse and drop her BP. We confirmed bilat PEs on the CT when we saw NO contrast left her right ventricle. The CT tech noticed first and became worried the patient had no cardiac output (ie pulseless).

We rushed the patient back to room 9 and gave a tPA bolus (50mg) followed by infusion of 40mg. She was on pressors and heparin and improving. Dr Smith accepted her to Jewish for possible EKOS or even ECMO if needed. On arrival to Jewish a few hours later she coded and died.

I was surprised when I found out she had died. Her O2 sat was improving, HR was decreasing, blood pressure was stable (though dependent on pressors). She received a large amount of crystalloid IV which according to some data might not have been optimal management. She also had the following ECG:

FullSizeRender

I think she was infarcting her myocardium. She likely had pulmonary infarction considering her poor oxygenation. She had coded a few times. She had a lot of strikes against her. Her BEST SHOT was going to a place with catheter assisted treatment for PE and ECMO if needed.

I am posting the case to let everyone know:

  1. How to manage sick PE patients (see post below)
  2. To use tPA in massive and in many cases of submassive PE
  3. TRANSFER sick PE patients to Jewish for EKOS/ECMO
  4. The decision to diagnose PE with RV strain on BEDSIDE Echo with no formal Radiologic testing will depend on your attending

This post from EmCrit / PulmCrit is a beautiful summary with potential dogmalysis related to PE management (see take home points below but do read the post).

In addition, here is a nice review article on catheter-based reperfusion treatment for PE with nice references for further reading.

Take home points from the Emcrit post:

  • The only evidence-based intervention that seems to improve mortality in massive PE is thrombolysis.   The primary goal of therapy should be administration of thrombolysis as soon as possible to patients without contraindication.
  • Consider early stabilization of blood pressure using a norepinephrine infusion, administered peripherally if necessary.
  • Volume administration may facilitate dilation of the right ventricle and hemodynamic deterioration.
  • Intubation is very hazardous and should be avoided if possible.   Patients die from cardiovascular collapse, and intubation may worsen this.
  • For a coding PE patient consider 50mg alteplase bolus as well as an infusion of epinephrine.  Patients can do well despite requiring CPR and high dose vasopressor infusions.

Phrenic Nerve Paralysis after intrascalene nerve block

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This was covered in the opening of the February EMRAP however not something that I was at all familiar with.  Here are the basics and something that is probably rare but worth knowing about:

 In the episode they presented a case of  70 year old female that was brought in with a complaint of shortness of breath. RR = 28 and SA02 – 88%. The patient presented three hours after a right shoulder arthroscopy.  

ECG : normal

CXR: elevation of the right hemidiaphragm

 Dx:  paralysis of right hemidiaphram after intrascalene nerve block

There are two major complications associated with intrascalene nerve blocks: 1. pneumothorax

2. unilateral phrenic nerve paralysis.

The patient likely had a transient phrenic nerve dysfunction causing unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis.  Younger patients can compensate, older patients with co-morbid conditions may not be able to tolerate this as only one lung is effectively ventilating.

The patient in this case was managed with supplemental 02 until the buvipicane wore off.  Some patients with underlying lung disease and this complication may require BiPAP/CPAP or intubation.  

Things that I took away:

  •  be aware of this procedure and this complication
  • this may be done for patients with same days surgeries to the upper extremity and this is important history to have from Pt or family.
  • It may be missed prior to d/c.  This was an example of one that was missed by Anesthesia prior to d/c of the patient. 
  • May look clinically like PE (tachypnea, tachycardia, post-op patient), however,  history will help make the dx as well as CXR.

 

A little more about the block:

Interscalene nerve block is typically performed to provide analgesia for upper extremity surgeries and may or may not be combined with mild general anesthesia.

 Example of Surgeries this may be used for:

-Shoulder surgery, such as rotator cuff repair, acromioplasty, hemiarthroplasty, and total shoulder replacement

– Humerus fracture

Dr Huecker Stayin’ Healthy

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As I was catching up on my weekly EM/pharmacology blogs, I stumbled across an article featuring our very own Dr Martin Huecker on the Academic Life in Emergency Medicine (ALiEM) website.  It is a great article about staying healthy and balancing life in EM. I’ve attached the link for your viewing pleasure.

https://www.aliem.com/2016/martin-huecker-healthy-in-em/

Valsartan/sacubitril use likely to increase significantly

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So I just came across that the Valsartan/sacubitril (Entresto) was given a strong class 1 recommendation by the American College of Cardiology for heart failure.  I haven’t seen much of it in med-recs yet, so I just wanted to post a couple of high points that I think we need to know from the ER side. From what I’m reading this drug will start to replace ACE-Inhibitors in the treatment of Class II-IV heart failure. It’s also prescribed in slightly odd dosing in the combination (51 mg/49 mg or 26 mg/24 mg).

Sacubitril is a prodrug that converts to sacubitrilat. Sacubitrilat is responsible for the benefits of this drug as it inhibits the enzyme neprilysin and stops it from degrading atrial/brain natriuretic peptide.

Ultimately the main thing you need to know are the contraindications with other drugs. Basically there are 3: Lithium, ACE-Is, and Aliskiren. Lithium levels have the potential to increase with this drug, while the other 2 can lead to significant hypotension in combination with Valsartan/sacubitril.

Here’s the ACC release: http://www.acc.org/latest-in-cardiology/articles/2016/05/20/11/30/societies-release-focused-update-for-hf-management?wt.mc_id=fb

Would be appreciate if someone with a stronger background in pharmacy or cardiology than I can chime in.

Urine Drug Screen

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So while on my ICU months this year, I had upper levels that were very insistent that we needed to get a urine drug screen on everyone.  I would try to make the point that it most likely was not going to change our management of the patient at all.  My point was often ignored and after countless urine drug screens obtained during those months, most if not all proved to be of no utility.

Interestingly, Foamcast just put out a podcast about false positives and false negatives on the UDS.  What I found most interesting was that ibuprofen can cause a false positive for just about anything under the sun including cocaine, PCP, THC, and barbiturates.  Also, the benzos tested on this really only test for oxazepam which is a metabolite of diazepam.  So Ativan, Klonopin, and Xanax won’t show up.

Here is the link if you want to read the whole thing.   https://foamcast.org/2016/04/26/episode-48-urine-drug-screen-cocaine-and-pcp/

Must-Read Resuscitation

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Folks,

I know I am incessantly encouraging people to follow Dr. Smith’s EKG blog, but the most recent post is too good to not tell you all about. In it, there is a write up of a fantastic resuscitation.

Highlighted in it are double-defibrillation, Head up CPR, hypokalemia bolus dosing, ultrasound for stemi and VFib (!), esmolol bolus for refractory vfib,  cath lab availability and MDM, hypothermia discussion, and prognostics in cardiac arrests.  I mean, this case report has it all, and it is referenced and discussed for our enjoyment.  Read it.

The resuscitation you wish you had run IS HERE!

Read it. I’ll buy you a drink if you do.

Zach

Head injury patients with delayed presentation to ED

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Another pearl from EM Lit of Note. Bottom line: Retro review of CT head obtained for trauma divided into <24 hours and >24 hours time of presentation. The delayed presenters had a HIGHER percentage of positive CT and had a similar amount of patients requiring NES intervention.

We discussed this the other day. First Care obtained a head CT on a patient several days after a minor head injury. We presumed it was not indicated. Then I read this paper.

Unfortunately I cannot find in the paper a description of time to presentation. It is grouped into less than 24 hours and greater than. I wonder if the likelihood of positive CT scan decreases as time from injury to presentation increases.

In any event, this poses difficult questions. Should we obtain more CTs on the delayed presenters? They are as likely to have positive findings. In addition, the NICE guideline is 70% sensitive, versus its comforting 98% in the less than 24 hour group.

Would be a good article to discuss for journal club. Would love to see some comments.

Spice/Heroin Reactions

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So I’ve had to encounter my two sickest patients in the holding area within the past 2 weeks or so. One was a reminder from intern year while looking through spice charts, while the other was an actual patient that I had 3 days ago.

We always tend to take the “Tank” patients lightly and overlook them sometimes. I just want to use this as a warning (especially to the interns) that sick patients can also use heroin/ETOH/Spice, so pick up on the small interactions that don’t go right. I’ll try to present these starting with how their chief complaint lead to the final diagnosis.

Patient 1 (intern year)

  • middle aged male
  • CC: Spice OD, Nausea/Vomiting
  • Final Diagnosis: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
  • Time to Diagnosis: 7 hours

So this guy presented as a spice reaction. This was before spice became as widely spread as it is now, and no one knew what to expect symptomatically (not that there is ANYTHING that is characteristic to spice anyways).

General story from talking with this guy is that he used spice for the first time that night. No significant past medical history. He was on a first date where everything had been going well. He had borrowed some spice from his friend where he used back at his place after dinner. Soon after he started having nausea and projectile vomiting and was acting ‘goofy.’ At that his date called EMS and the date ended.

Exam:

  • Gen: Fully A&O, slightly odd in that he seems incredibly happy to be here
  • CV: RRR
  • Pulm: CTAB
  • ABD: NT/ND
  • Neuro: CN II-XII intact, motor intact, sensation intact, ambulates without difficulty to bathroom

This man was like most of our intoxicated patients–a sober re-evaluation. At approximately 2 hours he was still vomiting in the ED, so the medical workup was initiated. Due to his odd behavior with vomiting, we got a CMP/CBC/Tox & CT Head. The night continued busy and I almost forgot about him as I waited for results. Ultimately he never got his CT Head due to being uncooperative but I wasn’t told until hours later. He ended up getting Geodon/Ativan in the ED but instead of calming him down he became more agitated and was no longer oriented. Ultimately getting rolled into room9 to be intubated prior to CT and the final diagnosis was made.

Certain forms of spice that lead to agitation also lead to spikes in blood pressure, and there are a few case reports of significant hypertension occurring after spice use. This guy had the unfortunate case of rupturing an aneurysm after using spice likely from a BP spike. I’m honestly not sure if the outcome would have been any different had I reached the diagnosis sooner — he got repetitive Head CTs and ultimately an EVD on hospital day 3. I didn’t really take him seriously even after I ordered a lab workup. This really changed my perspective on patients being held for intoxication. He spent 1.5 months in the hospital (1 month intubated) before being discharged to rehab.

Patient 2 

  • Middle aged white female
  • CC: Heroin OD got Narcan
  • Final Diagnosis: Cardiogenic Shock
  • Time to Diagnosis: 3.5 hours

This case I handled a bit better (I’d hope after 2 years). Story I could get is that this man had a syncopal episode. Received Narcan PTA by EMS and woke up. In the ED the patient adamantly denies heroin use–states he simply passed out. Luckily I got to him before EMS left, and EMS confirmed reports of bystanders stating opiate use.

Exam:

  • Vitals: HR 120, RR 16, O2 96%, BP 80/45, T 98.0
  • Gen: Fully A&O, drowsy
  • CV: tachycardia
  • Pulm: CTAB
  • ABD: NT/ND
  • Neuro: CN II-XII intact, motor intact, sensation intact, ambulates without difficulty to bathroom

My initial thought was that he may need some more narcan or that he received a longer acting opiate. The tachycardia was a wild card and didn’t make much sense with the picture. He remained afebrile and temp recheck, so I wasn’t thinking sepsis much at that time. At this point due to the tachycardia not making sense I ordered labs (and a tox for co-ingestants) and thought his BP/HR would improve with fluids.

I reassessed him after bolus #1 and #2 and neither HR or BP improved. Labs returned with an elevated WBC at 19.6. Opiates positive on top but otherwise were unremarkable. EKG sinus tachycardia. CXR and urine unremarkable. At this point even though I had no fever or source I felt compelled to initiate a septic workup and Lactate returned at 7.9.

I was starting to get lost as why this guy was so unresponsive to fluids and O’Brien and I threw the USN to bedside at this point. Turns out he was in acute systolic failure with an ejection fraction of 11%. No history of CHF and also no signs of volume overload on exam except very mild pulm edema. Troponin peaked at 0.5.

He was admitted by cardiology while they trended his status. He went to the cath lab on hospital day 3 with clean coronary arteries. Ejection fraction improved to 60% by time of discharge. Talking with the team today they are still uncertain of the cause.

These are two cases of sick patients being in the holding area. Hopefully, it serves to remind everyone that any patient can be sick.

Interesting Ultrasound

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A late 20s F G4P3003 at approximately 6 weeks gestation by LMP presents with a chief complaint of vaginal bleeding. A few hours PTA, patient states she felt a “gush of blood” with some mild abdominal cramping. VSS. On exam, noted to have a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding per the os. On our bedside ultrasound we note what appears to be a viable IUP with cardiac activity.  However, the uterus appears septate, with half containing the IUP and the other half more hyperechoic/solid in nature. We were concerned for a possible subchorionic hemorrhage and consulted OB/GYN. Our bedside US image is below:

BS US

OB came down with their Cadillac ultrasound and confirmed our findings.  For comparison, here is their much clearer image:

OB US

For this patient, with this large of a subchorionic bleed, the likelihood of her carrying this pregnancy to term was low. They planned to have her follow up in clinic for a repeat ultrasound in 2 weeks to reassess viability. Per our OB colleagues, other things on the differential included a fibroid. However, as this patient had 3 very healthy and rambunctious boys at the bedside with her, OB commented that a fibroid that large would likely have resulted in infertility.

And from UptoDate:

“A subchorionic hemorrhage or hematoma is a risk factor for spontaneous abortion, particularly when it amounts to 25 percent or more of the volume of the gestational sac. A meta-analysis of seven comparative studies found that women having a subchorionic hematoma had a significantly increased risk of spontaneous abortion, compared to women without such findings (18 versus 9 percent; OR 2.18, 95% CI 1.29–3.68). The findings also are associated with an increased risk of placental abruption (4 versus 1 percent; OR 5.71, 95% CI 3.91–8.33) and preterm premature rupture of membranes (4 versus 2 percent; OR 1.64, 95% CI 1.22–2.21). The increased risks of preterm labor and stillbirth appeared to be dependent upon the presence of vaginal bleeding.

Pregnancy outcome associated with subchorionic hematoma also relates to location, with worse outcomes observed for retroplacental hematomas, compared to marginal hematomas. The location, rather than the size, of a subchorionic hematoma may be the most important predictor of pregnancy outcome. Evidence relating to the size of the hematoma and the risk of adverse outcomes is inconclusive.

The only management option for subchorionic hematoma is expectant. There is insufficient evidence regarding whether bed rest decreases the risk of pregnancy loss when a subchorionic hematoma is present. Some clinicians repeat an ultrasound in one to two weeks to confirm fetal viability and assess any change in size of the hematoma, primarily to provide reassurance to the patient. A subchorionic hematoma is not an indication to conduct a diagnostic evaluation for an acquired or inherited thrombophilia.”

April Journal Club

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Hey, all,

There is multimedia for this month’s journal club, so I wanted to post it all in one place. The theme will be impossible decisions in the department (eg ED thoracotomy without surgery backup, but we’ve talked about that issue ad nauseum). In my mind, it’s best to think about how you’ll approach impossible decisions now, before they show up overnight on single coverage in the middle of nowhere. Other ideas for discussion are welcome.

Closing the emergency department: EP Monthly, Diversion 1, Diversion 2

Crashing VP shunt patient: Tapping a shunt article, Tapping a shunt video

Epidural hematoma: Burr hole for epidural hematoma article, Burr hole presentation, Video of a burr hole