5 day old with “seizures”

Recently I had an interesting case at Kosair of a 5 day old male who presented with jerking movements of his arms and legs. He always had “twitches,” which the parents had been assured were normal for a newborn, but the episodes were getting worse. Since the day before, he had had several episodes where both arms would shake and seize up and his legs would curl up under him, lasting about a minute. He is sleepy afterwards, but mom thinks he’s always pretty drowsy. Overall it was unclear if what mom was describing was a seizure. Even her helpful phone videos were not 100% clear, but we proceeded as though they were real seizures. In a 5 day old.

Mom had 3 UTIs during pregnancy, and her labor was likely precipitated by an episode of pyelo. She and baby were briefly tachy during labor but pain meds helped, and the SVD was otherwise uneventful. No STIs, GBS negative.

Baby was afebrile, normal VS. Appeared drowsy until the usual screeching during the cath urine, so overall, well-appearing baby. He did twitch sometimes, but he never had one of the spells while he was in the ER.

Differential diagnosis for neonatal seizures? Bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, SAH, SDH, hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, inborn errors of metabolism, etc.

Our patient wasn’t actively seizing and labs were WNL.

Subdural hematoma (from birth) and meningitis were high on our differential. We went ahead and gave antibiotics but got a CT head before proceeding with the LP, and I’m glad we did.  It turned out that he did have a subdural hematoma, likely parturitional. We elected to forego the LP, since he was afebrile and we already had a reasonable explanation for his symptoms. Neurosurgery wanted a repeat CT in 6 hours (surprise!), and neuro wanted an EEG (surprise!). He never had any of the episodes in the ER, so neuro didn’t start any antiepileptic medications.  He was admitted to the PICU.

He never had any seizure activity on EEG, so neuro diagnosed him with neonatal myoclonus. Hypocoagulability workup by hematology was negative. Neurosurgery will follow up in 3 weeks as an outpatient. He was discharged after 4 days.

The other interesting discussion on this patient involved whether or not to involve CPS, since this type of injury could be seen with a shaken baby syndrome. The parents were very appropriate and there was no sign of any other trauma and negative skeletal survey, so CPS was not contacted. The overall assumption was that the SDH was secondary to birth trauma rather than any non-accidental trauma.

Sleep saves lives

Interesting article looking at nightly sleep and coronary calcification. Pretty scary. Here is the abstract and a notable chart. They used actigraphy (wrist devices) to measure sleep and found a big difference, as many trials have, between self reported sleep and measured sleep. Sleep one extra hour a night and drop your coronary calcium by 33% (obviously this is a statistical finding and not an intervention study, still striking).

sleep ca abstract

 

 

sleep ca graph

 

 

Hypertonic Saline vs Mannitol

Research and Reviews in the Fast Lane (which is a must for anyone consuming FOAM) just covered a SR and meta-analysis on hypertonic saline. Relevant after our discussion in conference this morning.

Berger-Pelleiter E, et al. Hypertonic saline in severe traumatic brain injury: a systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials. CJEM 2016. PMID: 26988719

  • Hypertonic saline seems to be recommended more and more often for intracranial hypertension. What is the evidence in traumatic brain injury?
    This is a systematic review and meta-analysis that identified 11 RCTs covering 1820 adult patients with traumatic brain injury comparing hypertonic saline to either mannitol (½ the studies) or another solution (often normal saline, or even hypotonic saline.) Hypertonic saline did not decrease mortality (RR 0.96, 95%CI 0.83-1.11). It didn’t lower intracranial pressure (weighted mean difference -0.39, 95%CI -3.78 – 2.99). And it didn’t improve functional outcomes (RR 1.12, 95% CI 0.92-1.36). Maybe we shouldn’t be rushing to adopt hypertonic saline in the management of traumatic brain injury.
  • Recommended by Justin Morgenstern

It’s a rash, I think??

Meet little Jimmy. No, this isn’t his real name. Jimmy has been relatively healthy for his 17 months of life. Eating and drinking has been great. No recent diarrhea or vomiting; however, Mom became worried when she noticed a rash. Yes, I said it….a rash. Initially it began as a few bumps that started to spread along his arms and legs. Sounds a little strange, eh? Here’s more background…

Let’s go back about 6 weeks prior to me seeing little Jimmy in the pediatric ED. He was prescribed Amoxicillin for otitis media. It’s a standard medication that’s given; however, he began to develop this rash around that time. No other associated symptoms though. Not pruritic and did not seem to bother him. Intermittent tactile fevers, but Mom did not associate the rash and fever. Thinking the antibiotic was the culprit, she saw the Pediatrician who said to stop taking the medication [Amoxicillin]. Pediatrician thought this could be a drug reaction.. Little Jimmy was given some OraPred and Benadryl. Told to follow up in the next several days…

Rash begins to improve over the next week or so; however, a week prior to coming to the ED, the rash returns. This time, the rash is all over the body: face, arms, legs, torso, diaper area. Continues to have the intermittent tactile fevers but the child overall seems relatively well. By this time, Mom is fed up. She’s seen the Pediatrician multiple times and has not gotten a definite answer about the rash’s etiology.

Oh yea… Mom is on a deadline too. She’s moving across the country in 1 week and NEEDS an answer.
What’s that? Describe the rash.. oh yea!

Vitals: Stable, Afebrile
General: Child is mildly fussy but consolable on examination.

Skin: Diffuse, erythematous rash along bilateral upper and lower extremities.
Scattered vesicles with occasional patches throughout extremities, most noted to the legs.
Diaper area appears erythematous, however no vesicles.
When looking at the face, a peri-oral rash is present consisting of crusted, opened vesicles. Crusting is a yellowish-golden color.

Yellowish-golden crust ….. Impetigo?
Vesicular rash along extremties with patches ….. Eczema herpeticum?
Periorificial rash affecting both mouth and diaper areae ….. Acrodermatitis enterohepathica?

Impetigo:
Causative agent(s): Staphylococci and Streptococci
Appearance: Erythematous sores that can rupture, releasing fluid or pus, and covered by a yellowish-golden crust
Treatment: Topical cream vs Systemic antibiotic treatment [Penicillins, 1st gen Cephalosporins, Doxycycline, Clindamycine]

Eczema herpeticum:
Causative agent (s): Herpes Simplex Virus, both 1 and 2, Coxsackievirus.
Appearance: Vesicles superimposed on healing atopic dermatitis
Commonly associated s/s: Fever, Lymphadenopathy
Treatment: Supportive Care, Antiviral therapy [Acyclovir]

Acrodermatitis enterohepathica
Appearance: Erythematous plaques that can evolve into vesicles and bullae
Pathophysiology: Autosomal recessive; Zinc deficiency
Treatment: Supportive care, Zinc supplementation

——
We see many rashes in the ED. Not all of them are “Viral Exanthems.” All of the mentioned “rashes” can be treated. It’s helpful to get exposure to these dermatological presentations, and it’s even more helpful to know that you can’t apply steroid cream to everything hoping that it solves the problem.

So what happened to little Jimmy?
He received IV fluids and a dose of Acyclovir. Leading diagnosis: Eczema herpeticum

What about his Zinc level? What about the wound culture?
…..Stay tuned!

NRP

This is just a little reference card that goes along with what we learned on our last Peds Sim. I found that the Neonatal Resuscitation Program obviously has a different algorithm than with most of our resuscitation algorithms.  Take a look at it, memorize it or just forget about it. Ether way here is a quick reference for everyone.

 

 

NRP

Activating a Level I from EXI

Presentation: late-20s male, denied any medical history, presented after he got hit multiple times in the head with a two-by-four when he drunkenly stumbled into a stranger’s yard while walking home.  He had some abrasions to the head and face, and was obviously intoxicated, but had normal vitals and a nonfocal neurologic exam.  He had no visible trauma to the extremities or torso on initial evaluation and had reportedly been ambulatory at the scene.  He was cooperative and really wasn’t causing too much trouble for an EXI patient on whatever night it was.  So I went with the “liter of fluids, basic labs, scan his head and c-spine, and watch him while he sobers up” approach.  It’s one I’ve used many times before and since, and one that in all honesty I still stand by for this patient, at least initially.

Fast forward a handful of hours, his scans are negative, and he’s sobered up nicely.  He’s still cooperative, but having a little bit of left side pain.  He wasn’t very hungry but had taken a few sips and tolerated them okay.  So our fabulous nurse and tech tell me he’s “walky-talky” and probably going to be ready to go soon.  I start to get his discharge ready, when they catch my eye and call me over.

What I see when I get over there is not at all what I expect based on my last spin through EXI on my way out of Room 9…

Now, this guy looks sick.  Legitimately sick.  Not just unsteady or a little too drunk to walk, he is GHOSTLY pale and unable to stand.  He’s got a pained grimace on his face and is about to pass out.  We got him back into his chair and someone went off to grab an extra bag of fluids and the ultrasound for me, since his heart rate had spiked up to 125.  After he was flat in his chair, I threw the ultrasound probe on his abdomen: RUQ was equivocal, but his LUQ had a nice huge stripe of free fluid.  He also had some new ecchymosis in his left lateral abdomen/LUQ.  Unfortunately I was in a little bit of panic mode and didn’t save his ultrasound images, but it was crystal clear to me what had happened: something had been bleeding for a while and was now causing a big problem.  So we rolled his chair into Room 9, plopped him onto a bed, and hit the Level I button when his manual systolic pressure came out at 85.  We pumped fluids in him and got blood to the bedside and into his veins right about the same time the wedge and chief showed up.  He stabilized enough for the scanner after initial resuscitation, and Trauma stood by in radiology to watch the images come up.

His spleen was pretty much ripped in two.  He didn’t appear to have any active extravasation (surprisingly, as far as I recall), and his pressure was improving though his heart rate wouldn’t go below 100 for more than a few seconds at a time.  I talked to him, I talked to his mother, and I talked to the Trauma folks.  We had enough time to get repeat blood work, discuss the impending surgery, and get him packaged up as stable as he was going to be before they whisked him away to Room 4 (or maybe 6, whichever).

He recovered uneventfully from his splenectomy, and was discharged from the hospital a few days later.  He had the best possible outcome given the particulars of his eventful time in the ER.  But I kept asking myself a handful of questions over the following days that I still think about from time to time.  What if we had walked him earlier, well before his hemorrhage was on the border of Class II and Class III?  Could he have gone home and died of hemorrhagic shock from a missed spleen injury?  What if I had scanned him earlier and he had only had a tiny contained rupture with no extravasation?  Would he have ended up in OR 4 anyway but gone there from the floor or PCU instead of from the ED?  How should I have proceeded differently?

After kicking myself for a couple of days, I talked with the attending who had been on with me at the time all of the kerfuffle went down, and felt much better about my decision-making process.  I distinctly remember him having no torso trauma or pain on my first assessment.  Man scanning this young, otherwise healthy patient was not indicated.  It was not contraindicated, but would have seemed superfluous and a misuse of resources based on his initial presentation.  As a side note, which was honestly extremely relieving to me, Trauma wasn’t all that critical of my decision-making process and was just glad we caught it before it got any worse.

In doing a little bit of background research, it appears that delayed spleen rupture is a not-entirely-unheard-of entity, but is debated in some surgical literature as a term coined as an alternative way to describe a missed initial diagnosis.  Regardless of what it’s called, it does happen.  Though, when it does, it’s usually after at least a couple of days (sometimes even a week), not just a few hours.  The literature focuses more on whether it’s a legitimate problem than how to manage, as the management is no different from a normal spleen rupture.  Operative intervention is the usual course, though some small lacerations/subcapsular hematomas are electively managed with observation first, especially in high-operative-risk patients.

My experience gave me 3 lessons to take away.

First: Young, healthy, adult patients can trick you just like children, with vitals not markedly abnormal until a big problem is present.  So you need to reassess them.  I know I’m as guilty as the next person of not always reassessing as thoroughly as I’d like, especially on a busy shift, but I’m also much more aware of who will need me to do a little more work before I can bless their departure.

Second: Drunk (or otherwise intoxicated patients) can trick you and hide serious problems.  Be aware of this going forward, because it doesn’t mean you need to man scan everyone, it just means you need to keep your mind open to injuries that aren’t initially apparent.

Third: Adjusting the plan and course is entirely okay, and in some ways it’s what EM is built for.  It’s why we get gaits on traumas with leg pain.  It’s why we walk our drunks and PO challenge our vomiting patients.  And it’s something we have to keep in mind because we’ve all seen patients who went from apparently fine to nearly-dead in what seemed like a single instant.

Prolonged QT

58 yo F presents to the ED for cough, chest pain, and fatigue for 1wk. She has sharp, atypical sounding chest pain. But she is 58 and has risk factors: HTN, HLD, 0.5ppd smoker x48yrs. Better get an EKG.

Prolonged QT EKG

Initial EKG

Awesome, no STEMI. Done with EKG right? Hope you didn’t miss that really long QT interval.

First, how do we measure the QT?

QTc imageWe usually talk about QTc rather than just the QT. This is because the QT interval varies depending on the HR. Using a correction equation standardizes the interval so it can be interpreted regardless of the HR. The EKG computer does give a calculation of the QTc, because we are obviously not hand calculating this on every patient. You should compare what the computer calculates to your gestalt when you review the EKG. If there are any concerns or discrepancies, you should hand calculate the QTc. MDCalc has an easy to use calculator. Above is the Bazett’s formula, which seems to be the most commonly used. Other formulas do exist. QTc is considered prolonged if > 440ms in men or > 460ms in women.

Next, why do we care?

ecg_hypokalaemia_torsades

This is the start of Polymorphic VT. There are several things that can cause this rhythm. Long QT is one possible cause. When Polymorphic VT is caused by a prolonged QT we give it a special name, torsades de pointes. The mechanism behind this is demonstrated on the above EKG. As the QT interval becomes more prolonged, there is a higher chance for an R-wave to hit on just the right part of the T-wave and cause this rhythm. QTc > 500ms seems be associated with higher risk.

So what causes prolonged QT?

Many things can cause prolonged QT. The most common etiologies are electrolyte abnormalities and drugs. Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia are well known to cause prolonged QT. Potassium and calcium are included on the CMP but don’t forget about magnesium. Drugs are also a big cause of prolonged QT. The list of drugs is long. Probably too long to memorize. However, there are some common medications and medication classes that you should know. The big classes are, Antiarrhythmics (like Amiodarone), Antihistimines (like Diphenhydramine), Macrolides (like Erythromycin), Antipsychotics (like Haloperidol), and TCAs (like Amitriptyline). This is not a complete list, just some highlights. If you really want to know if a specific medication is associated with prolonged QT, www.crediblemeds.org is a good source.

Other causes worth mentioning are structural heart disease, cardiac ischemia, and stroke. Some people do have Congenital Long QT Syndrome, but this should not be the leading diagnosis in the ED. Also those people are still at high risk for developing Polymorphic VT.

How did our patient do?

Her medications were reviewed and she was not on any of the most common offenders. Then routine labs came back. Unremarkable, except for K of 2.9! Repeat EKG after potassium repletion.

Normal EKG

EKG after K repletion

 

References:

  • www.uptodate.com
  • http://lifeinthefastlane.com/ecg-library/basics/qt_interval/
  • http://hqmeded-ecg.blogspot.com/2013/10/polymorphic-ventricular-tachycardia.html
  • bjsm.bmj.com/content/43/9/657/F3.large.jpgamp

Diabetes Insipidus in Intracranial Injury/Trauma

During a string of nights, I had two separate patients that despite having different injuries presented me with an interesting question. The first was a man in his 50s with a large intracranial hemorrhage, mass effect and the beginning of herniation; the second was a young male that was the victim of a GSW to the head. However, despite the different etiologies of their injuries, they both presented to Room 9 literally yelling for water. One became so combative in his demands for water, he had to be restrained.

This got me thinking; in the setting of very serious injuries, why is the only thing that concerns these men oral hydration?

The most concise information I found comes from Life in the Fast Lane. While it is referring to TBIs, the pathology relates to both of my patients as well. Thirst is controlled mostly by ADH released by the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary. Any disruption in this production chain can decrease ADH, leading to central diabetes insipidus.

In the setting of trauma, this can be caused by direct damage to the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary, disruption in their vascular supply or increased intracranial pressure/herniation that can compress these structures. Whether by a large hemorrhage or direct trauma like a GSW, intracranial injury can damage the ADH supply, leading to diabetes insipidus and the extreme thirst felt by these patients. Endocrinopathies have been associated with 30-50% of TBIs with the most common disorder being diabetes insipidus.